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yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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\i dont think so

Step-by-step explanation:

let's add {f(x)=x+1}f(x)=x+1 and {g(x)=2x}g(x)=2x together to make a new function.

f(x)+g(x) =(x+1)+(2x)=x+1+2x=3x+1

let's call this new function hh. so we have:

{h(x)}={f(x)}+{g(x)}{=3x+1}h(x)=f(x)+g(x)=3x+1

we can also evaluate combined functions for particular inputs. let's evaluate function hh above for x=2x=2. below are two ways of doing this.

method 1: substitute x=2x=2 into the combined function hh.

h(x)

h(2)

​    

=3x+1

=3(2)+1

=7

​ since h(x)=f(x)+g(x)h(x)=f(x)+g(x), we can also find h(2)h(2) by finding f(2) +g(2)f(2)+g(2).

first, let's find f(2)f(2):

f(x)

f(2)

​    

=x+1

=2+1

=3

​  

now, let's find g(2)g(2):

g(x)

g(2)

​    

=2x

=2⋅2

=4

​  

so f(2)+g(2)=3+4=\greend7f(2)+g(2)=3+4=7.

notice that substituting x =2x=2 directly into function hh and finding f(2) + g(2)f(2)+g(2) gave us the same answer!

answer: ratio of volume of cone (with 3 times the height and equal diameter) to volume of cylinder is 2 to 1. the value of π is not used.

step-by-step explanation:

radius is diameter/2 = 4.

area of circle is π r^2.

volume of cylinder is height × area of base = hπr^2 = 3(4^2) π = 48π cubic inches.

not knowing the formula for volume of cone, i calculate it using calculus (which is for calculating things).

volume of cone is integral 0 to h area(y) dy. area(y) is π r(y)^2. r(y) runs r to zero as y runs zero to h, r(0) = r, r(h) = 0.

r(y) = r - r/h y

area(y) = π (r - r/h y)^2 = π (r^2 - 2r^2y/h + r^2y^2/h^2) = π r^2(1-2y/h+y^2/h^2)

antiderivative area(y) = π r^2 (y-y^2/h+y^3/(3h^2))

integral 0 to h = π r^2(h-h^2/h+h^3/(3h^2) - (0)) = π r^2(h - h + h/3) = π r^2(h/3) = π/3 r^2 h

volume of this cone is π/3(4^2)18 cubic inches.

= 6 16 π = 96π cubic inches.

cone has twice the volume, 96/48.

cone height is 6 times the cylinder.

ratio of volume formula: π r^2 cancels.

cone over cylinder ratio is 6h/3 to h, 2 to 1.