Benjamin believes that 1/2% is equivalent to 50%. Is he correct? Why or why not?

yes because 1 divided by 2 is 0.5 which can be converted to 50%

answer: the answer is (b) amie should have multiplied

step-by-step explanation: given a sphere and a cylinder with same radius and height.

let, 'r' be the radius of the cylinder and sphere and 'h' be the height of the cylinder. according to the question,

r = h.

now, the volume of the sphere will be

and the volume of the cylinder will be

therefore, we have

thus, ammie should have multiplied the volume of the sphere

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so

step-by-step explanation:

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