How can you generalize the effect of a translation or dilation of a function on the inverse of that function? Why do you think this generalization is true? Be sure to join in on the conversation rather than start a fresh post each time. As a group, see if you can come to a definitive conclusion.

The description below represents function a and the table represents function b: function a the function is 5 more than 3 times x. function b x y −1 2 0 5 1 8 which statement is correct about the slope and y-intercept of the two functions? (1 point) their slopes are equal but y-intercepts are not equal. their slopes are not equal but y-intercepts are equal. both slopes and y intercepts are equal. neither slopes nor y-intercepts are equal.