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Mathematics, 02.03.2021 06:50 SKYBLUE1015

The domain of f(x)=cosx must be restricted to all real numbers in order for the function to have an inverse function. The domain of g(x)=arccos(x)
is −1≤x≤1
and its range is 0≤x≤π
.
is this correct ?


The domain of f(x)=cosx

must be restricted to all real numbers in order for the function to have

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Answers: 1

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