PLEAS HELPHELP Note: Enter your answer and show all the steps that you use to solve this problem in the space provided.
Given f(x)=sin x and g(x)=cos x, show that f(g(pi/2))=0. Show all your steps.

f (g (pi / 2)) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following functions:

f (x) = sin x

g (x) = cos x

The first thing we must do in this case is the composition of functions:

f (g (x))

By making the composition we have:

f (g (x)) = sin (cos x)

We evaluate for x = pi / 2:

f (g (pi / 2)) = sin (cos (pi / 2))

f (g (pi / 2)) = sin (0)

f (g (pi / 2)) = 0

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step-by-step explanation: