The experimental probability that pedro will hit a hole in one at the golf course is 2/5. if pedro goes golfing 40 times in a year, how many times can he expect to hit a hole in one?

I'm pretty sure you would need to multiply 2/5 by 40.

So, if you multiply 2/5 by 40, you need to turn 40 into a fraction with 1 being the denominator.

2/5 x 40/1 = 80/5

Since the product is an improper fraction, you would simplify it to a whole number.

80/5 = 16. 

He can expect to hit it 16 times to get a hole in one.

I hope I am right and have a great day.