Mathematics, 18.09.2019 05:30 bob8939

Zoya has to earn at least $300 to meet her fundraising goal. she has only 100 bracelets that she plans to sell at $5 each. which inequality shows the number of bracelets, x, zoya can sell to meet her goal?
60 ≤ x ≤ 100
60 ≤ x ≤ 300
100 ≤ x ≤ 300
20 ≤ x ≤ 100

Answers: 1

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The least amount of bracelets she can sell is 60 because 60 times 5 = 300. The max is 100 because she only has 100 bracelets. So its $60 \leq x \leq 100$

Answer from: duttonsteven45

60 ≤ x ≤ 100

Step-by-step explanation:

Great question, it is always good to ask away and get rid of any doubts that you may be having.

Before we can find which inequality fits the question. We need to find how many bracelets needs to sell to hit her goal of $300. We can calculate this with the following expression.

300 = 5x .... divide both sides by 5

60 = x

We can see that Zoya needs to sell a minimum of 60 bracelets to hit her goal, but at the same time she cannot sell more than 100 because that is all the amount of bracelets she has. Therefore the answer would be, 60 ≤ x ≤ 100

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at .

Answer from: Quest

the answer is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities. i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming. when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution. this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot. there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything. the form of the distribution is

probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

Answer from: Quest

the answer to the expression is 83

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