Please help me I'm on a time crunch I will give you a brainliest if you answer correctly and remember I need an explanation

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 candles and 2 are red

P(1st candle red) = red/total = 2/4 = 1/2

Now we keep the 1 candle

There are 3 candles and 1 is red

P(2nd candle is red) = red/total = 1/3

P( 1st is red, 2nd is red) = 1/2 * 1/3 = 1/6

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

So there are 4 candles total, 2 red, 1 green, 1 blue.

On the first draw, there's a 2/4 chance of selecting a red.

On the second draw, there's a (2-1)/(4-1)=1/3 of selecting red again.

Because these events are independent, they are to be multiplied, therefore (2/4)(1/3)=2/12=1/6.

So there's a 1/6 chance of drawing a red candle followed by another red.

Hope that makes sense!

see attached

step-by-step explanation:

given the function as;

write the equation replacing f(x) with y

form   and fill a table containing values of y with corresponding values of x

you can take a range for   values of x as -3≤x≤3

solving for x=-3

for x=-2

repeat the same procedure to get the values of y for the remaining ,x=-1 to x=3

plot the values of y against values   of x and obtain the following graph