Why only one of the intercepts is enough to determine a line function when the slope is constant? a. Because the intercepts are equal.
b. Because we can only use y-intercept
c. Because one of them is dependent to the other one
d. None of the above

choose the correct answer

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Step-by-step explanation:

none of above

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guess at question:

a vertical line intersects the graph of g(x,y) = 0 at two points. what conclusion follows about the function f(x) implicitly defined by g(x,f(x)) = 0?

the domain of f(x) cannot include the x coordinate of any such vertical line.

informally, f(x) is not a function, and

g(x,y)=0 cannot be solved for y uniquely.

the relation r = {(x,y) such that g(x,y) = 0} is a function if

for all (a,b) ∊ r and (c,d) ∊ r, a=c implies b=d.

step-by-step explanation: