Mathematics, 22.06.2021 14:30 alexandria3498
Logarithmic Function
Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
The x-intercept of f(x) = log4x is
4
⇒ 1.
What happens to the value of f(x) = log4x as x approaches 0 from the right?
Answers: 3
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Logarithmic Function
Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept?...
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