A sample tested the claim that heights of men and heights of women have difference​ variances, with s=7.42388 cm for women and 7.14974 cm for men. The sample sizes are n1=144 and n2=156. When using the F test with these​ data, is it correct to reason that there is no need to check for normality because n1>30 and n2>​30?

No. The F test has a requirement that samples be from the normally distributed populations, regardless of how large the samples are.

The F-test simply shows whether the variances that are in the numerator and the denominator are equal. The F-test can be applied on a large sampled population.

One main assumption of the F test is that the populations where the two samples are drawn are normally distributed.

Regarding the question, it's important to note that when using the F test with these​ data, it's not correct to reason that there is no need to check for "normality".

It should be noted that the F test has a requirement that samples are from the normally distributed populations, regardless of how large such samples are.

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x=-2

infinite number of lines, so there is an infinite number of equations.

step-by-step explanation:

there are an infinite number of line that passes through the point (-2,5)

x=-2   is one line that passes through the point

y = 5 is another line that passes through the point

(these two lines are perpendicular to each other).

since the number of   numbers are infinite and the slope is the ratio of two numbers,(change in y over change in x) we can have an infinite number of slopes.     our only condition is that it passes through the point (-2,5)