Mathematics, 18.01.2022 22:20 bigdramm409
So for a surjective function the codomain is equal to domain. However does the function need to have all real numbers of the x axis as well to be able to be a surjective function. Like what if the range was infinite for the y axis, but not for the x axis would it still be surjective?
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So for a surjective function the codomain is equal to domain. However does the function need to have...
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