Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

the answer to this question is 3/19

step-by-step explanation:

m∠cdf = 43° , m∠gdf = 114°, m∠gde = 23°, m∠edh = 23° , m∠cdh = 157°

step-by-step explanation:

since, it is given that de bisects the angle gdh ⇒ de divides the angle gdh into two equal angles.

⇒ m∠gde = m∠edh

⇒ 8·x   - 1 = 6·x + 5

⇒ x = 3

so, m∠gde = 8·x - 1 = 23°

and m∠edh = 23°

now, it is given ∠cde is an straight angle so, m∠cde = 180°

⇒ m∠cdf + m∠fdg + m∠gde = 180°

⇒ 43° + m∠fdg + 23° = 180°

⇒ m∠fdg = 114°

again, m∠cde = m∠cdh + m∠edh = 180°

m∠cdh + 23° = 180°

⇒ m∠cdh = 157°

answer: my brother can figure it out, imma go get him so i can answer : ) edit: my brother is sleeping, sorry man

step-by-step explanation:

it is x=-4

step-by-step explanation: