Mathematics, 01.07.2019 04:00 nicolehathaway1012

Enter an inequality that represents the graph in the box.

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Answer from: HTKPenguin

Slope = 4y int = -6

y > = 4x - 6

Answer from: KrazyBird0912

$y\geq 4x-6$

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given graph of an inequality. We are asked to find the inequality represented by the given graph.

First of all, we need to find equation of boundary line of our given inequality.

Let us find slope of line using points (2,2) and (0,-6) .

$m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}$

$m=\frac{-6-2}{0-2}$

$m=\frac{-8}{-2}$

m=4

We can see that y-intercept of boundary line is , so equation of boundary line would be y=4x-6 .

We can see that boundary line is a solid line,so the points on one side of boundary line will be $y\leq 4x-6$ and points on other side would be $y\geq 4x-6$ .

Now, we will test point (0,0) in both inequalities to see which inequality satisfies our given graph.

$y\geq 4x-6$

$0\geq 4(0)-6$

$0\geq 0-6$

$0\geq-6$

Since point (0,0) is in shaded region for our given inequality and inequality $y\geq 4x-6$ includes point (0,0), therefore, the inequality $y\geq 4x-6$ represents our given graph.

Answer from: Quest

the answer is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities. i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming. when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution. this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot. there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything. the form of the distribution is

probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

Answer from: Quest

143 75 107 13 the answer
Enter the missing numbers in the boxes to complete the table of equivalent ratios of lengths to widt

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