Mathematics, 24.07.2019 07:00 whatnowb
John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. complete the example that disproves john's statement. if you divide both sides of −3z ≥ 0 by −3, you get z ≥ can anyone ? : )
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John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol wh...
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