Why can a magnetic monopole not exist, assuming Maxwell's Equations are currently correct and complete?

Because closed magnetic field loops have to be formed between both ends of the magnet, a magnet will always have two poles.

Explanation:

Magnetic Monopoles do not exist in nature because a magnetic field always forms a loop that runs from one end of the magnet to the other.

Since this loop of the magnetic field has an origination and termination point which are at the two ends of the magnet (North and South poles).  A magnet will always be bipolar which is in this case, North and South; even at an atomic level.

russian is not my first language, so i'm afraid i can't write out an answer in russian, but hopefully you can find a way to do so. here's my best translation of the problem: you're given a plot of a particle's position in one-dimensional space over time, and you're asked to find either the total distance traveled by the particle after 6 seconds had elapsed, or the total displacement of the particle after 6 seconds.

if you want the total distance traveled, you would first need to determine the particle's velocity as a function of time, then integrate that over the 6-second interval. we know the position function is quadratic with roots at 0 and 6, so we have

where is unknown. because the position is parabolic, there is symmetry about the midpoint at , and we know that

so that the position function is

which means the velocity is

then the total distance traveled is

so the total distance traveled is 20 m.

on the other hand, if you want to find displacement: the particle starts at and ends at , so its displacement is 0.

b. false

explanation:

suppose a rock in free fall is dropped off a cliff. after falling for 5 seconds, its speed would not be 100 m/s.