Physics, 30.12.2019 19:31 cl6205071

If a larger current passes through the coil of an electromagnet what happens

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Answer from: Quest

It's true it didin't work becouse britain continued trading with it's colonies and the system hurt economies of the countries that used it

Answer from: Quest

d₁ = displacement of tern from arctic to antarctic = 11000 miles

d₂ = displacement of tern from antarctic to arctic = - 11000 miles

d = total displacement for the journey

total displacement for the journey is given as

d = d₁ + d₂

d = 11000 + (-11000)

d = 0 miles

t₁ = time of travel from arctic to antarctic = 3 months = 3 x 30 days = 90 days

t₂ = time of travel from antarctic to arctic = 3 months = 3 x 30 days = 90 days

t = total time of travel

total time of travel is given as

t = t₁ + t₂

t = 90 + 90

t = 180 days

average velocity is given as

average velocity = total displacement/ total time

v = d/t

v = 0/180

v = 0 miles/day

Answer from: Quest

Answer: a charge of -1.0 × 10⁻⁴ c must be placed at x = 26 m.the sign of the charge will be the same sign as the -4.0 µc charge.======electricstatic force between two point charges is given by $f = \dfrac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}$ where k is coulomb's constant, 8.99×10⁹ n·m²/c², q₁ and q₂ are the point charges, and r is the distance between the two point charges.assign positive to q₁let q₁ = 6.0 µc, q₂ = -4.0 µc, q₀ represent the charge at the origin, and q₃ represent this new charge to place.the charge at the origin q₀ would experience the following force f₀₁ from q₁, with r = 6.0 m (note that 1 µc = 10⁻⁶ c) $f_{01} = \dfrac{kq_0q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2}$ the force from q₂ $f_{02} = \dfrac{kq_0q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2}$ the force from q₃ $f_{03} = \dfrac{kq_0q_1}{(\text{26 m})^2}$ the net force on the origin charge, q₀, has to be zero for no electrostatic forcehaving an equation where k and q₀ can be divided out of the equation will allow us to solve for q₃ $\begin{aligned} f_{net} & = 0\\ f_{01} + f_{02} + f_{03} & = 0 \\ \dfrac{kq_0q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} + \dfrac{kq_0q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2} + \dfrac{kq_0q_3}{(\text{26 m})^2} & = 0 \\ kq_0 \left( \dfrac{q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} + \dfrac{q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2} + \dfrac{q_3}{(\text{26 m})^2}\right) & = 0 \\ \dfrac{q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} + \dfrac{q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2} + \dfrac{q_3}{(\text{26 m})^2} & = 0 \end{aligned}$ isolating: $\begin{aligned} \dfrac{q_3}{(\text{26 m})^2} & = -\dfrac{q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} - \dfrac{q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2} \\ q_3 & = -(\text{26 m})^2\left(\dfrac{q_1}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} + \dfrac{q_2}{(\text{15 m})^2}\right) \\ q_3 & = -(\text{26 m})^2\left(\dfrac{6.0\times10^{-6} \text{ c}}{(\text{6.0 m})^2} + \dfrac{-4.0\times10^{-6} \text{ c}}{(\text{15 m})^2}\right) \\ q_3 & = -1.0064888 \times 10^{-4}\text{ c} \\ q_3 & = -1.0\times 10^{-4}\text{ c} \end{aligned}$ a charge of -1.0 × 10⁻⁴ c must be placed at x = 26 m.the sign of the charge will be the same as the -4.0 µc charge

Answer from: Quest

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If a larger current passes through the coil of an electromagnet what happens...

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