Why should the government be able to take somebody's property without his or her consent? give some examples of what you would view as legitimate uses of eminent domain.

In my view, the Government could only withdraw private property from a citizen if there is a technically proven public benefit. For example, in the case of road construction or land reform.

To accomplish this, the Government must comply with the requirements of the expropriation laws, supporting the public interest and guaranteeing individual rights.

dude you should crop your image so only the question shows. but   can you explain it better

limited access to education