What is wrong with defining ""the godly and pious"" as that part of justice that is concerned with the ""care of the gods""?

This statement is wrong because it is too wild and not specific, it is just like "beating round the bush", without a specific impact. This statement those not tell us what it means by godly, and it has not explained what he sees as pious in Justice.

Explanation: This is a statement gotten for the third definition of piety by Euthyphro, which state that;

"The godly and pious is the part of the just that is concerned with the care of the gods, while that concerned with the care of men is the remaining part of justice" "it is the knowledge of how to say and do what is pleasing to the gods at prayer and sacrifice".

This Third definition has the same problem with his second definition of piety.

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answer; presidential election years;