In a paragraph or two, consider the other possibility, that justice and moderation are the distinguishing features of all human goodness. Thinking about the way that Socrates has explained what he is looking for in a definition of virtue, do you think this formulation could form the basis for an acceptable definition? Would it, in other words, do the job of saying how virtues, as Socrates says in his example of bees, "are all the same and do not differ from one another" (72b). Why or why not?

Yes

Explanation:

Socrates ' concept of morality, because it states goodness is nothing but a subjective practice, is appropriate. Every person does have a different outlook about what is and is not virtuous. Justice is nothing more than a form of virtue that can be differently defined by different people once more. This goes against his explanation of bees, though, as each person has differing opinions, but essentially their ulterior motive for identifying virtue is only for the better.

the answer is       political office  

hope this .

i got 3,4 and 5 as an answer