Explain why riparian rules that were efficient in pre-industrial England and colonial America might have been insufficient after the industrial revolution. In discussing efficiency, consider both allocative efficiency and transaction costs.

Explanation:

During the preindustrial england ruled stopped private ownership of water rights. The owner of the water rights were not allowed to be selling the rights to this water to non-riparians or diminishing the stream. Others that who are on the river had a de facto veto on how water is supposed to be used. The employment of water was most likely fairly limited in pre-industrial England, used only for drinking and bathing. Water was non-rival, and its supply for the public was enough, and as the society grows, the uses of water were rapidly changing at a similar pace to the industries. It even got worse to the point where there was not enough water for everyone.

i’m   sure probably just geuss and see which one you can get right, i’m pretty sure it is the combination of goods and services

answer; no longer than a reasonable period of time;