It is suggested that the judicial branch (courts) is just as political as the executive (governor) and legislative (legislature) branches of Texas government. Do you agree or disagree and why?

No, I do not think so.

Explanation:

I believe that since the courts are supposed to be non-biased they are non-biased. If they were biased we would have an infinite stronghold of certain political parties in the state. But since opinions have changed there isn't any substantial evidence there is such bias.

(This is an opinionated question, there is no real answer and there isnt a reason for us to do it for you)

all people shall have equal rights upon birth and ever after. (when referring to the rights of man the declaration of the rights of man only applied to landowning men who were 25 years or older and paid taxes equal to 3 days worth of work and were not servants.

explanation: hope this