1. Why did Europeans after 1300 use "Middle Ages" to refer to the time between the end of the Roman Empire and the start of the Renaissance?

it would have concentrated power in the executive branch of the government. it would have restored balance among the three branches of government. it would have set a precedent for government intervention in the economy. it would have signaled an end to all the programs of roosevelt’s new deal.

did this .

hello your answer is d

well we know that it was fought between america and the united kingdom based on that i assume people consider the second war of independence because brtiain and england (uk)   the uk is made up of england and i assume thats why it was considered that