Show that (f o g)(x) = (g o f)(x) = x
f(x)=
g(x)=

Step-by-step explanation:

They are not.

For the g[f(x)] function, you substitute ³/ₓ ₋ ₁ from the f(x) function in for x in the g(x) function to get this:

Then, you bring x - 1 to the top while changing the expression to its conjugate [same expressions with opposite symbols]:

You could also do this [attaching another negative would make that positive].

For the f[g(x)] function, ²/ₓ from the g(x) function for x in the f(x) function to get this:

Now, if you look closely, ²/ₓ is written as 2x⁻¹, and according to the Negative Exponential Rule, you bring the denominator to the numerator while ALTERING THE INTEGER SYMBOL FROM NEGATIVE TO POSITIVE:

When this happens, x leaves the two and gets attached to the three, and 1 gets an x attached to it.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

you cant answer this dummy

step-by-step explanation: