Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

There’s is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Step-by-step explanation:

- 2 + 10x³ - 21x² + 19x - 4

step-by-step explanation:

each term in the second factor is multiplied by each term in the first factor

x²(- 2x² + 4x - 1) - 3x(- 2x² + 4x - 1) + 4(- 2x² + 4x - 1) ← distribute

= - 2 + 4x³ - x² + 6x³ - 12x² + 3x -8x² + 16x - 4

collect like terms

= - 2 + 10x³ - 21x² + 19x - 4 ← in standard form

the solution is 12x-6y