Plz help I will mark barinlest

0

Step-by-step explanation:

If we use PEMDAS, we know that we need to do the multiplication and division first. (1/2)^4 is equal to 1^4/2^4, which is 1/16. Next, 1/16 * 32 is equal to 2. Finally, we do 6 divided by 3, which is 2. 2 - 2 is equal to 0, so the answer is 0.

3/6 chance

step-by-step explanation:

half of the nubers are odd numbers (1,3,5) which in that case if you would be told to simplify it would be 1/2

< xcy ≅ < xby

step-by-step explanation:

in δcax and δbax,

so, δcax ≅ δbax (side-angle-side or sas)

since δcax ≅ δbax, we can conclude < acx ≅ < abx

in δacy and δaby,

so, δacy ≅ δaby (side-angle-side or sas)

since δacy ≅ δaby, we can conclude < acy ≅ < aby

now,

< acy ≅ < aby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < abx + < xby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < acx + < xby   (since < acx ≅ < abx already proved above)

subtracting < acx from both sides, we get

< acx + < xcy -< acx ≅ < acx + < xby -< acx

cancelling out < acx and -< acx from both sides, we get

< xcy ≅ < xby (proved)